Global Business Environment MCQs with Answers – Set1
Global Business Environment Multiple Choice Questions with answers for preparation of various competitive and academic exams like UGC, NET, BCOM, MCOM, MBA, BBA and many other regular and distance education exams
Global Business Environment Multiple Choice Questions
Global Business Environment Multiple Choice Questions with answers are available here:-
1. Geographical indications specifies
A. Place of origin of goods.
B. Special characteristics of the product associated with place of origin.
C. Place and special characters of the product.
D. Place or special characters of the product.
2. Business across several countries with some decentralization of management decision making to subsidiaries is
A. Global business.
B. Multinational business.
C. Transnational business.
D. Multi-regional business.
3. Land as a factor of production is immobile
A. Within the region.
B. Between the countries.
C. Within the nation.
D. In all cases.
4. Immobility of labour among nations is
B. Relatively of a higher degree than among regions in the same country.
C. Relatively easier than movement within the country.
D. Of the same degree as within the country.
5. Uneven distribution of natural resources
A. is the only cause for international business.
B. is the major factor for international business.
C. is among the major factors for international business.
D. is not a cause for international business.
6. The following factor does not differentiate international business from domestic business
A. different currencies
B. product quality
C. product mobility
D. trade policies
7. Free international trade maximizes world output through
A. Countries specializing in production of goods they are best suited for.
B. Reduction in taxes.
C. Increased factor income.
D. Encouraging competition.
8. International business does not result in the following
A. Innovation is encouraged.
B. International cooperation is encouraged.
C. Imports are rendered cheap.
D. Consumption is minimized.
9. By entering into international business, a firm expects improvement in
B. All spheres of marketing, operation and finance simultaneously.
C. Any or all spheres of marketing, operation and finance.
D. Finance only.
10. By having business in different countries, a firm reduces
A. credit risk.
B. political risk.
C. financial risk.
D. business risk.
11. Wholly owned subsidiary can be set up
A. as a Greenfield venture.
B. to acquire an existing firm.
C. to have products marketed overseas.
D. to have management is overseas.
12. The essential feature of FDI is
A. Investment of a very high value.
B. Investment in shares.
C. Investor’s influence on the management of the enterprise.
D. Investment of low value.
13. No new investment in the host country is created in the case of
A. Greenfield FDI.
C. Horizontal FDI.
D. Vertical FDI.
14. A firm investing in a foreign country to distribute the products there in creation of
A. Asset seeking FDI.
B. Backward vertical FDI.
C. Forward vertical FDI.
D. Distribution FDI.
15. The disadvantages of Greenfield FDI as compared to acquisition is
A. Profit will be less.
B. Size of investment will be high.
C. Lesser control in management.
D. Delay in establishment.
16. Conglomerate FDI refers to
A. FDI made by a group of firms.
B. FDI made in subsidiaries.
C. FDI made in similar products.
D. FDI made in unrelated products.
17. Countries/ regions with huge market siz will attract
A. Market seeking FDI.
B. Efficiency seeking FDI.
C. Vertical FDI.
D. Created assets seeking FDI.
18. The following statement with respect to culture is false
A. Culture is enduring.
B. Culture is changing.
C. Culture is evolved among the members of a society.
D. Culture is determined by national boundaries.
19. The following is not a component of culture
D. Life expectancy.
20. Non- verbal communication
A. includes written communication.
B. has no place in international business.
C. includes body language.
D. should be learnt by business managers to communicate with foreigners.
21. Religion of a person affects his/her
A. attitude towards entrepreneurship.
B. gifting practices.
C. use of products.
D. all of the above.
22. For the society, religion has no influence on
C. role of women.
D. marketing practices.
23. The role of women is restricted in
A. Eastern countries.
B. Middle East countries.
C. Traditional Islamic countries.
24. The following nationals would be aggressive at the beginning of business negotiations, but offer large concessions in the end
25. Social stratification is done on the basis of
A. Income level.
D. any of the above.
26. Social mobility is measured by
A. The extent to which an individual can move the strata to which he/she belongs.
B. The promptness with which an individual accepts foreign assignments.
C. The extent to which inter- caste marriage is encouraged by the society.
D. The extent to which the society as a whole shifts its habitat.
27. Lower power distance countries are characterized by
A. relationships based on equality and informality.
B. authority being accepted without question.
C. managers being paternalistic.
D. tall organizations structure.
28. A country with high uncertainty avoidance will witness
A. lower level of stress among people.
B. decision taken as a result of group consensus.
C. less dependence on rules and regulations.
D. people are serene.
29. As per cultural dimensions of Hofstede, masculinity refers to
A. Male- female ratio in the country.
B. Society dominated by male members.
C. Society characterized by aggressive and materialistic behaviour.
D. War- ridden societies.
30. According to economic growth model of Rostow, passage of a country through the stages is
A. in the order specified.
B. in any order.
C. in the order specified, but certain stages may be skipped.
31. A country in the stage of traditional society is characterized by
A. existence of traditional rule.
B. non existence of industries.
C. predominance of agriculture.
D. complete absence of literacy.
32. The stage indicating highest level of economic growth is
A. age of mass consumption.
B. age of mass production.
D. drive to maturity.
33. The income level of residents in a country is indicated by
A. gross national income.
B. gross domestic product.
C. per capita gross national income.
D. per capita gross domestic product.
34. For a country with relatively lower level of cost of living PPP per capita GNI will be
A. lower than per capita GNI.
B. higher than per capita GNI.
C. same as per capita GNI.
D. may be lower or higher than per capita GNI.
35. In a business cycle, the phase preceding prosperity is
D. recession or depression.
36. Monetary policy relates to controlling
A. money supply.
B. money supply and interest rate.
C. money supply, interest rate and exchange rate.
D. credit creation by banks.
37. Analysing the business environment best assists in
A. Identifying key competitive forces; identifying competitive position; identifying key opportunities, threats, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Auditing macro environmental influences; identifying key competitive forces; identifying competitive position; identifying key opportunities and threats.
C. Auditing external and organisational factors; identifying key competitive forces; identifying competitive position; identifying key opportunities and threats.
D. Assessing historical trends; auditing environmental dangers; identifying strategic capabilities; identifying competitive position.
38. In relation to the PESTEL framework, which of the following statements is correct?
A. It assists in the assessment of organisational strengths and weaknesses.
B. It allows a detailed analysis of the structure of an industry.
C. It can be used as a checklist to understand the different environmental influences in the macro environment.
D. Takes an historical perspective on the main political, economic, sociocultural, technological, environmental and legal factors.
39. The following factors are key drivers of globalisation
A. Government action, exchange rates, competition and sociodemographic factors.
B. Market convergence, competition, exchange rates and cost advantages.
C. Cost advantages, government action, economic cycles and competition.
D. Market, cost, competition and government policies.
40. Scenarios are used to
A. Develop a long term view of strategy.
B. Build plausible views of different possible futures and develop a long term view of strategy.
C. Identify key drivers of change.
D. Develop a view of an environment which has a high degree of uncertainty, build plausible views of different possible futures and take a long term view of strategy.
41. Porter suggests the following reasons for one nation being more competitive than another
A. Ability to speak English; developed network of supporting industries; absence of competition; and low labour cost.
B. Abundant natural resources; skilled labour force; temperate climate; and democracy.
C. Factor conditions; demand conditions; related and supporting industries; and firm strategy, industry strategy and rivalry.
D. Strong sporting ethos; emphasis on individual achievement; strong national party in power; large home market.
42. The five forces that affect the level of competition in an industry are
A. Threat of entrants; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of substitutes; competitive rivalry.
B. Threat of buyers; power of entry; power of substitutes; threat of suppliers; threat of recession.
C. Threat of recession; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of management failure; competitive rivalry.
D. Threat of entry; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of substitutes; government action.
43. Which of the following statements in relation to the Five Forces framework is correct?
A. The framework assists in developing a broad perspective on the environment within which an organisation is operating.
B. It is not appropriate in public sector management.
C. The framework is a means of identifying the forces which affect the level of competition in an industry or sector.
D. The framework identifies the major stakeholders of an organisation.
44. In the Five Forces framework, threat of entrants means
A. The possibility of an existing competitor capturing the entire market.
B. The possibility of an existing competitor withdrawing from the market.
C. The possibility of a new competitor entering the market.
D. The possibility of a potential competitor entering a different market.
45. Which of the following could be effective in preventing a potential competitor from entering the market?
A. High capital costs.
D. Low switching costs for buyers.
46. The threat of substitutes may be high if
A. Switching costs are of concern to the customer.
B. The substitute product provides a higher perceived value or benefit.
C. The substitute product does not provide enhanced functionality, reduced cost and better quality.
D. Customers have strong existing brand loyalty.
47. Buyers can exercise high bargaining power over their suppliers if
A. The volume they buy accounts for a large percentage of their suppliers sales.
B. There are few buyers in the market.
C. They have many suppliers to choose from.
D. There is a high concentration of suppliers.
48. Assessment of competitive rivalry does NOT include an understanding of
A. The extent to which competitors are in balance.
B. Market growth rates.
C. Fixed costs, exit barriers and operational efficiency.
D. The management structure of an organisation.
49. Strategic Groups are
A. A group of companies competing in the same industry.
B. Organisations in the same industry with similar characteristics and following similar strategies.
C. Strategic Business Units (SBUs).
D. Organisations following similar strategies.
50. Market segmentation aims to
A. Identify the similarities and differences between groups of customers or users.
B. Identify the similarities between groups of customers or users.
C. Identify the differences between organisations and their competitors.
D. Identify the needs and wants of all customers or users.
51. What are the bases of market segmentation?
A. The business environment; the attractiveness of the market; the purchase/use situation.
B. The strength of the competitors; the attractiveness of the market; the organisational structure.
C. Strategic capabilities; organisational structure; organisational culture.
D. The characteristics of the people/organisations; the purchase/use situation; users’ needs and preferences for product characteristics.
52. Strategic gaps are
A. Weaknesses in a company’s resources or competences.
B. Opportunities in the business environment not being fully exploited by the competition.
C. Opportunities in the same market segment.
D. Opportunities in new market segments.
53. PEST is an acronym which stands for
A. duct, Economy, Society, Technology
B. Political, Economic, Societal, Technological.
C. Political, Economic, Social, Technological.
D. People, Economy, Standards, Transport.
54. Which of the following is not a major reactive motif for initiating export?
A. proximity to international customers/psychological distance
B. Competitive pressures.
C. Foreign market opportunities/market information.
D. Unsolicited foreign orders.
55. One of the following does not represent a general market risk in the internationalization process
A. petition from other organizations in foreign markets
B. lack of tax incentives for organizations that export
C. language and cultural differences
D. complexity of shipping services to overseas buyers
56. The following represent major reactive motives for initiating export
A. ended sales of seasonal products.
B. competitive pressures
C. overproduction/excess capacity and unsolicited foreign orders
D. all of the above.
57. In which way do Japanese firms typically exploit foreign market opportunities?
A. using perceived-value pricing strategies.
B. by using psychological pricing strategies.
C. by using penetration pricing strategies.
D. through mass communication where their strengths in technological innovation are emphasized.
58. According to the World Bank classification which of the following is not a high income economy?
59. Which is the largest country within the EU by size of the population?
C. United Kingdom.
60. Approximately what per cent of the world income is found outside the United States of America?
A. 30 per cent.
B. 40 per cent.
C. 75 per cent.
D. 90 per cent.
61. Which of the following is not a common form of tariffs?
62. A quick method that can help international marketers compare relative value of currencies is to check the price of a
B. litre of petrol.
C. Snickers bar.
D. Big Mac.
63. An increase in the general level of prices, as measured against some baseline of purchasing power is also known as
64. The European Union is an example of
A. monetary union.
B. free trade area.
C. common market.
D. economic union.
65. The economic System whereby the state holds broad powers to serve the public interest, it decides what goods and services are produced and in what quantities and demand typically exceeds supply is
A. Market socialism.
B. Market capitalism.
C. Centrally- planned socialism.
D. Centrally- planned capitalism.
66. Islamic Law is a comprehensive code based in part on
A. Roman Law and the Napoleonic Law.
B. Anglo-Saxon common law.
C. EU law.
D. the Koran.
67. The following are examples of political risk actions
A. local-content laws and exchange controls.
B. import and labour restrictions.
C. price and tax controls.
D. all of the above.
68. Which of the following options contains the correct order from the lowest to highest level of economic integration?
A. from economic area to customs union to common market to free trade area.
B. from customs union to economic union to free trade area to common market.
C. from free trade area to customs union to common market to economic union.
D. from common market to free trade area to economic union to customs union.
69. Among the factors that affect the balance of trade figures are
A. exchange rates, taxes, tariffs and trade measures.
B. the business cycle at home or abroad.
C. trade barriers and agreements.
D. non tariff barriers.
70. Direct democracy is characterised by
A. citizens directly participating in the government of the state.
B. periodical elections for representatives.
C. police force in the private hands.
D. policy influenced by an individual.
71. The right of a citizen to freedom of expression and option is preserved in
A. representative democracy only.
B. all democracies.
C. direct democracy only.
D. democracy as well as totalitarianism.
72. Totalitarianism does not permit
A. practice of religion.
B. state worship of land.
C. freedom of expression to citizens.
D. recognition of citizenship to residents.
73. Theocratic totalitarianism refers to rule by
B. foreign missionaries.
C. the military.
D. religious leaders.
74. Sanctions and embargoes differ in the following respect
A. Sanctions are against the individuals, embargoes are against nations.
B. Sanctions are specific trade restrictions; embargoes prohibit all business deals with another country.
C. Sanctions are general, embargoes are specific.
D. Sanctions are against a single country, embargoes are against all foreign countries.
75. Export control refers to restrictions on
A. Domestic firms from engaging in exports.
B. Items that can be exported from the country.
C. Foreign countries exporting to the country.
D. Domestic firms engaging in trade with nation.
76. Indirect regulations affecting international business does not include
A. Export licensing.
B. Antiboycott regulations.
C. Antitrust laws.
D. Anti corruption laws.
77. Antiboycott regulations provide that
A. Domestic companies should not boycott any export order.
B. Foreign companies should not boycott exports from the country.
C. Domestic companies should not comply with boycott regulations imposed by the importing country.
D. Trade should be liberal as provided under WTO charter.
78. Transfer of assets of a foreign firm to a domestic firm affected by the government with payment of compensation is
79. The compensation is paid on expropriation
A. At market rate.
B. At corresponding value in the home country of the firm.
C. Lower than market value.
D. On non-repatriable basis.
80. Confiscation refers to seizure of assets of a firm by
A. The government with adequate compensation.
B. The government without compensation.
C. Its rivals.
D. The people of the country.
81. Under domestication requirement
A. Only the ownership of the firm is transferred to rivals.
B. The management of the firm is transferred to locals.
C. Both ownership and management of the firm are transferred to locals immediately.
D. Both ownership and management of the firm are transferred to locals gradually.
82. The operating risk in the host country does not include the risk of
A. Change in government policies.
B. Exchange control.
C. Price controls.
83. The political risk faced by a firm cannot be managed by
A. following ethical business practices.
B. partnership with local firms.
D. none of the above.
84. The legal system in India is based on
A. Common law.
B. Civil law.
C. Theocratic law.
D. Hindu law.
85. Judgments are based on detailed codes, rather than precedents under
A. Common law.
B. Civil law.
C. Theocratic law.
D. English law.
86. Theocratic law refers to
A. Islamic law.
B. Military law.
C. Law based on religious precepts.
D. Tribal law.
87. The following statement relating to civil law is true
A. The role of judges to interpret the law.
B. The role of judges to apply the law.
C. It is based on established practiced.
D. It is not applicable to criminal cases.
88. In international business cheaper alternatives to litigation is/ are
D. Conciliation and arbitration.
89. A contract drafted under civil law differs from that drafted under common law in the following respect
A. It will be detailed.
B. It will be shorter and less specific.
C. It will provide less severe damages.
D. It will be in detail.
90. Ownership of intellectual property is recognized in law by granting
D. Patent, copyright or trademark as appropriate.
91. Product liability law relate to
A. Holding the manufacturer responsible for the damages caused to the genuine user of the product.
B. Liability of the customer for illegitimate use of the product.
C. Liability of the seller for selling spurious goods.
D. Holding the manufacturer for advertising the false information.
92. Voluntary export restraint is
A. Tariff barrier.
B. Non- tariff barrier.
C. Both tariff and non- tariff barrier.
D. Not a trade barrier.
93. The objectives of import duty is/are
A. To raise income for the government.
B. To restrict imports.
C. To encourage exports.
D. To raise income and restrict imports.
94. Import tariff benefits
A. the consumers.
B. domestic producers.
C. overseas suppliers.
D. the overseas producers.
95. Non- tariff trade barriers do not include
A. administrative regulations.
B. export subsidiaries.
C. fiscal barriers.
96. The following is not a feature of globalisation
A. Similar strategies are adopted by a firm in all markets.
B. Only multinational firms engage in international business.
C. Convergence of ideas and culture.
D. Obliteration of national boundaries.
97. Globalisation of markets has brought about economies of
A. scale in production.
B. distribution and marketing.
D. all business operations.
98. Outsourcing of components is an example of globalisation of
D. Production and marketing.
99. The following benefit is not expected from globalisation
A. Reaping the benefits of free trade.
B. Better quality of life through choice of product.
C. Better knowledge through compulsory education.
D. Dissemination of information through new information technology.
100. Anti- globalisation has been voiced by
A. all developing countries.
B. only few developing countries.
C. supporters from both developing and developed countries.
D. only developed countries.
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