# Data Communication MCQ with Answers

Preparing for exams can be a daunting task, especially when it comes to subjects like Data Communication. To ensure success, students often seek additional resources and practice materials that can help them understand the concepts better and master the subject effectively.

If you find yourself in this situation, searching for reliable Data Communication multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers or model question papers, then look no further! In this article, we have compiled a comprehensive collection of MCQs and model question papers specifically designed to assist you in your exam preparation journey. So, let’s dive in and explore these valuable resources that are sure to enhance your understanding of Data Communication!

Data Communication MCQ with Answers – Model Question Papers for preparation of academic and competitive exams of various institutes.

## Data Communication MCQ with Answers

1. ___ means 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed from 1 to 0 or from 0 to 1.
Ans. Burst error

2. A burst error is more likely to occur than a single-bit error. (True/False).
Ans. True

3. To be able to detect or correct errors, we need to send some extra bits called ___ bits with our data.
Ans. Redundant

4. Maximal sequencing is one of the more popular coding methods in a spread-spectrum system. (True /False?)
Ans. True

5. The most important feature of spread spectrum is its ability to___.
Ans. reject interference

6. The original ALOHA protocol is called ___.
Ans. pure ALOHA

7. CSMA stands for ___.
Ans. Carrier sense multiple access

8. The basic idea behind CSMA/CD is that a station needs to be able to receive while transmitting to detect a ___.
Ans. Collision

9. ___ was invented to improve the efficiency of pure ALOHA
Ans. Slotted ALOHA

10. In ___the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.
Ans. FDMA

11. The main problem with TDMA lies in achieving synchronization between the different stations. (True /False?)
Ans. True

12. CDMA stands for ___.
Ans. Code division multiple access

13. To transmit the data beyond a local area from source to destination, a network of ___ nodes are required.
Ans. intermediate switching

14. Multiplexing allows efficient utilization of the full capacity of the channel. (True or False?)
Ans. True

15. A common application of multiplexing is in ___ communications.
Ans. long-haul

16. Spread Spectrum uses ___ noise-like signals.
Ans. wideband

17. The use of ___ in spread spectrum communications makes signals appear wideband and noise-like.
Ans. pseudo-noise codes

18. The carrier of the direct-sequence radio stays at a ___ frequency.
Ans. fixed

19. Node-station links are generally dedicated ___ links.
Ans. point-to-point

20. In ___ switching there is a dedicated communication path between two stations.
Ans. circuit

21. In the ___approach, a preplanned route is established before any packets are sent.
Ans. virtual circuit

22. MODEM performs modulation and demodulation of transmitted data. (True or false?)
Ans. True

23. ___ is the ability of the network to deliver packets via some route in the face of localized failures and overloads.
Ans. Robustness

24. The switching centres in the network are called ___.
Ans. Exchanges

25. A space-division switch is one in which the signal paths are physically separate from one another (divided in space). (True or False?)
Ans. True

26. The basic building block of the switch is a metallic crosspoint or semiconductor gate.
Ans. Crosspoint, semiconductor gate

27. A ___ is a general-purpose computer running specialized software that turns it into a smart phone switch.
Ans. Softswitch

28. MGC stands for ___.
Ans. media gateway controller

29. The ___is a distributed collection of packet-switching nodes.
Ans. packet-switching network

30. Which packet switching does not require a call setup?
Ans. Datagram

31. A data network or internet is a network of___.
Ans. Queues

32. Packets are stored in the input buffer of the corresponding port as they arrive. (True /False?)
Ans. True

33. Congestion at one point in the network quickly ____ throughout a region or the entire network.
Ans. Propagates

34. ___ is a technique for congestion control.
Ans. Backpressure

35. A ___ is a control packet generated at a congested node and transmitted back to a source node to restrict traffic flow.
Ans. choke packet

36. ICMP stands for ___.
Ans. Internet Control Message Protocol

37. Explicit congestion control techniques operate over connection-oriented networks. (True / False?)
Ans. True

38. If all of the queue buffers are of not equal length, then the queues with the highest traffic load will suffer discards more often. (True / False?)
Ans. False

39. A reservation scheme is an integral part of ___ networks.
Ans. ATM

40. One aspect of a reservation scheme is ___.
Ans. traffic policing

41. LAN stands for ___.
Ans. Local Area Network

42. SAN stands for ___.
Ans. Storage Area Network

43. In a SAN, no server sits between the ___ and the network.
Ans. storage devices

44. In ___ topology the transmission medium is a branching cable with no closed loops.
Ans. tree

45. In which LAN topology each station is directly connected to a common central node?
Ans. star

46. In LAN protocol architecture, the bottom two layers namely the physical layer and the data link layer are defined. (True /False?)
Ans. True

47. DSAP stands for ___.
Ans. Destination Service Access Point

48. The bridge should contain enough buffer space to meet peak demands. (True /False?)
Ans. False

49. A ___ contains multiple ports.
Ans. hub

50. A switch keeps a record of the ___ addresses of all the devices connected to it.
Ans. MAC

51. ___ is a local area network configured by software not by physical wiring.
Ans. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

52. ISDN stands for ___.
Ans. Integrated Services Digital Network

53. Decision place refers to which node or nodes in the network are responsible for taking the decision. (True /False?).
Ans. False

54. For fixed routing a single ___ is configured for each source-destination pair of nodes in the network.
Ans. permanent route

55. What is the principal disadvantage of flooding?
Ans. High traffic load

56. In random routing a node selects only one outgoing path for retransmission of an incoming packet. (True or False?)
Ans. True

57. Which was the world’s first operational packet switching network and that was the foundation of the present-day Internet.
Ans. ARPANET

58. The original routing algorithm, designed in 1969, was a ___ algorithm
Ans. Distributed adaptive

59. Link utilization is expressed as a function of delay.(True /False?)
Ans. True

60. Virtually all packet-switching networks and all internets base their routing decision on some form of ____ criterion.
Ans. least-cost

61. In Dijkstraâ€™s algorithm, N represents a set of ___ in the network.
Ans. Nodes

62. A generalization of the minimum-hop criterion is ___.
Ans. least-cost routing

63. The Ethernet frame contains ___ fields.
Ans. Seven

64. An Ethernet frame needs to have a minimum length of ___ bits.
Ans. 512

65. Standard Ethernet uses ___ CSMA/CD.
Ans. 1-persistent

66. Slot time =___ + ___.
Ans. Round-trip time, Time required to send the jam sequence

67. All standard implementations use digital signalling (baseband) at ___.
Ans. 10 Mbps

68. 10Base-F uses a ___ topology to connect stations to a hub.
Ans. Star

69. A bridge divides the network into two or more networks (True/False)
Ans. True

70. 10Base5 and 10Base2 communication is ___.
a) half-duplex
b) full-duplex
c) full-simplex
d) simplex
Ans. a) half-duplex

71. In full-duplex switched Ethernet, there is no need for the CSMA/CD method. (True/False)
Ans. True

72. ___ is added between the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer to provide flow and error control in full-duplex switched Ethernet.
Ans. MAC control

73. Fast Ethernet implementation at the physical layer can be Categorized as either ___.
Ans. Two-wire or four-wire.

74. ___ was designed to use category 3 or higher UTP which uses four pairs of UTP for transmitting 100 Mbps.
Ans. 100Base-T4

75. Gigabit Ethernet cannot use the Manchester encoding scheme because it involves a very high bandwidth. (True/False)
Ans. True

76. The IEEE committee created Ten-Gigabit Ethernet and called it as ___ Standard.
Ans. 802.3ae

77. ___ establishes an initial association between a station and an AP.
Ans. Association

78. IEEE 802.11 includes a frame exchange protocol to deal with errors at the MAC level more efficiently. (True or False)
Ans. True

79. The IEEE 802.11 infrared scheme is ___ rather than point to point.
Ans. Omnidirectional

80. ___ is an extension of the IEEE 802.11 DSSS scheme, providing data rates of 5.5 and 11 Mbps in the ISM band.
Ans. IEEE 802.11b

81. ___ is Used to establish the identity of stations to each other.
Ans. Authentication

82. WEP stands for ___.
Ans. Wired Equivalent Privacy

83. Wireless LAN systems can provide LAN users with access to real-time information anywhere in their organization. (True or False?)
Ans. True

84. The infrared spectrum is regulated worldwide. (True or False?)
Ans. False

85. A ___ wireless LAN makes use of a multiple-cell arrangement.
Ans. spread spectrum

86. ESS stands for ___.
Ans. Extended Service Set

87. The frame defined in HDLC is divided into a PDU at the ___ sub-layer.
Ans. LLC

88. What is the need of LLC?
Ans. The purpose of the LLC is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services.

89. ___ defines Media Access Control (MAC) and Physical (PHY) layers specifications for wireless LANs.
Ans. IEEE 802.11

90. An ___ network is a peer-to-peer network.
Ans. ad hoc

#### Conclusion

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